Is a law still a good law if nobody actually follows it?

This depends on how we define the concept of "law", which academic scholars have been at war over for decades. Some people take what's called a teleological point of view, where the procedure that goes into actually making a law (e.g. Parliament, Royal Assent, precedent) is what makes it a "law" in the first place. Some go beyond that to say that this is redundant if it's not effective - this is what we call consequentialist. There is no wrong or right answer to this question, but variations of it are very popular in Oxbridge interviews because it demonstrates how an applicant thinks about the role of the law in society - whether it's merely formalistic or whether it actually has to achieve a purpose to be good law.

SS
Answered by Srishti S. Oxbridge Preparation tutor

1774 Views

See similar Oxbridge Preparation Mentoring tutors

Related Oxbridge Preparation Mentoring answers

All answers ▸

Why can we approximate sin (x) as x? Over what range is the approximation valid? Does it also work in degrees?


Past interview question: 'Is power a useful lens with which to view history?'


What can I do to impress Oxbridge interviewers and what are they looking for?


Tell me why you want to study Classics at this university? (personal statement)


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2025 by IXL Learning