Why does a firm with a monopoly set price to be equal to marginal cost?

First, is important to note that a firm that has a monopoly has the ability to set its own price since there is no other competitors in the market. In addition, in economics, we typically assume that all firms are trying to maximise their profits. By setting price equal to marginal cost they do this.To see why consider the scenarios where the marginal cost is greater than the price. This means that the cost of producing the last unit is greater than the price, and is therefore making a loss, reducing profit. In the alternate case, if it is less than the price, by producing additional units, profits can be increased. Hence, it is optimal for them to set price equal to marginal cost.

Answered by Robert D. Economics tutor

3365 Views

See similar Economics A Level tutors

Related Economics A Level answers

All answers ▸

Assume the market for Easter rabbits is currently at long term equilibrium. Assume Australia is the largest supplier of easter rabbits. A sudden explosion in the rabbit population of Australia leading up to Easter. How will the market react?


Why can customs unions lead to higher prices for consumers?


Describe one effect of an increase in the rate of interest on the economy?


What is the difference between perfect competition and imperfect competition?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2024

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy