Why is it yo ME llamo and not yo llamo?

Because in Spanish there is a category of verbs called refelxive verbs that end in se rather than ar/er/ir. When you use a reflexive verb you need to conjugate the 'se' part according to the person is referring to and move it at the start of the verb. In the case of llamarse the verb goes: me llamo, te llamas, se llama, nos llamamos, os llamais, se llaman. In English yo me llamo would be literally translated as I call myself.

NB
Answered by Nicola B. Spanish tutor

20429 Views

See similar Spanish A Level tutors

Related Spanish A Level answers

All answers ▸

Prepare for essay writing. Example: June 2015 - AQA: Unit 03 - Question sample. Analiza las ventajas y los problemas de vivir en la región que has estudiado. ¿Qué se podría hacer para mejorar la vida de sus ciudadanos?


How can I improve my pronunciation? (For oral exam in particular)


What is your best advice for translation?


When is it right to use 'lo', 'la' and 'le' in Spanish?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2025

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy
Cookie Preferences