Why is it yo ME llamo and not yo llamo?

Because in Spanish there is a category of verbs called refelxive verbs that end in se rather than ar/er/ir. When you use a reflexive verb you need to conjugate the 'se' part according to the person is referring to and move it at the start of the verb. In the case of llamarse the verb goes: me llamo, te llamas, se llama, nos llamamos, os llamais, se llaman. In English yo me llamo would be literally translated as I call myself.

NB
Answered by Nicola B. Spanish tutor

23405 Views

See similar Spanish A Level tutors

Related Spanish A Level answers

All answers ▸

When do I use the subjunctive?


What is the different between the preterite and imperfect tense?


When do you use the Preterite and the Imperfect?


Cuál es la diferencia entre los verbos 'ser' y 'estar'?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning