"j'ai cueilli des fleures"; "je les ai cueillies". Why does the participle on the one hand take an "i" at the end, and on the other hand an "ies"?

This is an example of how the agreement of the past particle works with the auxiliary "avoir" (have), "j'ai" at the first person singular. The agreement of the past particle with the auxiliary "avoir" works with the direct object, at one condition: the direct object must be place before the auxiliary to have an agreement. In the first sentence the direct object "des fleures" (feminine, plural) is place after the auxiliary "avoir". This is why the participle "cueillir" is just written "cueilli" and does not take in account the gender and quantity of the direct object. In the second sentence "des fleures" is replaced by "les" (considered a defined article in French), which is placed before the auxiliary. in this example we see that "cueillir" becomes "cueillies", the direct object is place before "avoir".

JT
Answered by Jean-Gabriel T. French tutor

2345 Views

See similar French A Level tutors

Related French A Level answers

All answers ▸

What is the subjunctive and how is it formed in French?


When to use the present participle (or gerund) in French and how is it different to the English gerund (ING-form)?


What are the first steps to write a successful short essay on a work of the syllabus? [A-level French Literature]


When do I use qui and when do I use que?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning