Why did was there no direct conflict between the US and the USSR in the Cold War?

By 1950, both the USSR and the USA had successfully developed and tested nuclear weapons. For both countries, spending on research and development for more advanced nuclear weapons was a top priority, as a way to prove their global dominance and ideological superiority.
However, nuclear weapons were never used by either country against the other because of mutually assured destruction (MAD). This means that both countries were aware that, if they were to use their nuclear weapons, the other country would retaliate and completely destroy the other.
This meant that the Cold War did not involve direct conflict between the USA and the USSR and instead focussed on propaganda and proxy wars (where both the USA and the USSR would involve themselves in smaller regional conflicts, supporting whichever side they ideologically agreed with.

EB
Answered by Elizabeth B. History tutor

7459 Views

See similar History GCSE tutors

Related History GCSE answers

All answers ▸

how did hitler manage to become chancellor of Germany in January 1933?


How do I answer 6-mark questions? Eg. "Explain why Tsar Nicholas II had become unpopular by early 1917."


'Hitler was able to become Chancellor of Germany in January 1933 mainly because of the effects of the Wall Street crash/ depression'. Do you agree? Explain your answer.


Explain why there were challenges to the Weimar Republic in the years 1919-1923 (12 marks) You may use the following in your answer: The Treaty of Versailles, The Kapp Putsch. You must also use information of your own.


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning