What is the difference in meaning between the aorist and perfect tense?

There is a subtle difference in meaning between these two tenses, which both refer to an action in the past. The aorist tense simply refers to a single, completed (not ongoing) action in the past, i.e. I X-ed, I did X. The perfect tenses refers to the present state which results from an action in the past which can be completed or ongoing, i.e. I have X-ed, I have been X-ing.
This can be clarified with an example. An example of an aorist tense verb would be "he broke a window", which simply refers to a completed action of breaking in the past. "he has broken the window" refers to a similar past action, but focuses on the current state resulting from it, implying the window is currently in a state of having been broken.

JB
Answered by Joseph B. Classical Greek tutor

4900 Views

See similar Classical Greek GCSE tutors

Related Classical Greek GCSE answers

All answers ▸

How is αὐτος used in Greek?


How can one know the different gender that each greek word falls into?


How are you qualified to teach Classical Greek at GCSE Level?


Translate the following sentence and then explain the cases of the nouns and the tense of the participle. 'οἱ ἐκ της πολεως φυγοντες οὐκ εἰσιν ἀνδρειοι.᾽


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning