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Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).
SR
Answered by Sherin R. • Maths tutor
5123 Views

What is 'grouping' and how does it work?

Grouping is essentially factorisation, it's just the idea that ax + bx = (a+b)x, which we already know. But the difficulty is in recognising this relationship when x is more complicated, for example when x= ...
FH
Answered by Farah H. • Maths tutor
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Make a the subject of 3(a+4) = ac+5f

Multiply out the brackets: 3a+12=ac+5f 3a-ac=5f-12 a(3-c)=5f-12 a=5f-12/3-c
AP
Answered by Abhiraj P. • Maths tutor
4352 Views

Calculate the integral of (3x+3)/(2x^2+3x) between the limits 39 and 3

The first step is to split the fraction into 2 separate fractions using partial fractions techniques. Write 3x+3/2x^2+3x as A/x + B/2x+3 and solve to get A = 1, B = 1. We have now converted 3x+3/2x^2+3x into...
OW
Answered by Oliver W. • Maths tutor
3579 Views

Where do the graphs of y=3x-2 and y=x^2+4x-8 meet?

In order to find the points where these functions meet, we can equate them to get 3x-2 = x^2+4x-8 . Subtraction (3x-2) from both sides, we get x^2+x-6 =0 which we can factorise to get (x+3)(x-2)=0 Therefore ...
HS
Answered by Helen S. • Maths tutor
4107 Views