Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor

4234 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

What is the derivative of f(x)=sqrt(3x+2)=(3x+2)^(1/2)?


A triangle has sides a,b,c and angles A,B,C with a opposite A etc. If a=4,b=3,A=40, what is the area of the triangle?


differentiate 4x^3 + 3x^2 -5x +1


Given the two curves y1 and y2, verify the two curves intersect at (-5,0) and (2,0)


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2025 by IXL Learning