Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor

4053 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

Use integration by parts to integrate the following function: x.sin(7x) dx


differentiate x^3-6x^2+2x=0


What is the integral of sin(3x) cos(5x)?


What is the general rule for differentiation?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2025

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy
Cookie Preferences