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Why does a 'many to one' function not have an inverse?

Because its hypothetical inverse would be 'one to many' which is not a function. This is because a single x-value would map to several y-values at the same time.

Answered by Roy K. • Maths tutor

13631 Views

What is the difference between unconditional and conditional probability?

Unconditional probability is a measure of the liklihood of a particular outcome relating to a series of independent events, where the outcome of one does not effect the outcome of another. For example, co...

Answered by Oliver H. • Maths tutor

9687 Views

If a cuboid of width and height-8m with a volume of 896m^3, work out the length of the cuboid and distance between two opposite points

Length=L 896= 8x8xL => L=896/64 => L=14
Distance between two opposite points = 3D TrigD=sqrt(8^2+8^2+14^2) =sqrt(324) =18

Answered by Declan C. • Maths tutor

2499 Views

20% of 14,000

For any percentage that is a factor of 10 you can always start off by dividing by 10.So for example, 20%, 30%, 40% of a value, you always start off by diving by 10.In this case we divide 14,000 by 10 = 14...

Answered by yasmin D. • Maths tutor

3943 Views

Renee buys 5kg of sweets to sell. She pays £10 for the sweets. Renee puts all the sweets into bags. She puts 250g of sweets into each bag. She sells each bag of sweets for 65p. Renee sells all the bags of sweets. Work out her percentage profit.

To find the percentage profit, we must first find the amount of money she receives from the sale of the bags of sweets.This is equal to the number of bags sold multiplied by the sale price of each bag.The...

Answered by marcus b. • Maths tutor

15791 Views