increased prosperity, rather than internal labour divisions, explains why the conservatives were so politically dominant in Britain in the years 1951-1964. Assess the validity of this view.

introduction- brief introduction relating to the question. Than explain the differing viewpoints on this question. explain what your will discuss and your give a final judgement. paragraph 1-5: you introduce the point briefly. explain the point and how it links to your question and then your final judgement. than provide specific evidence. (For an A* level candidate, it is vital at this point to provide historiography). finally conclude the point and link it back to your judgement. conclusion - summarise your whole essay and re-establish your final judgement.

Answered by Yasser S. History tutor

1966 Views

See similar History A Level tutors

Related History A Level answers

All answers ▸

How accurate is it to say that it was the interest taken by James VI that accounts for the extent of witchcraft persecutions in Scotland in the years 1590-97?


To what extent should the period of Conservative dominance between 1951 and 1964 be viewed as "Thirteen Wasted Years"?


'Economic successes was the most important reason for Conservative electoral dominance in the period from 1951-64.' How far do you agree?


What were the origins of the First World War?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2024

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy