Why is it yo ME llamo and not yo llamo?

Because in Spanish there is a category of verbs called refelxive verbs that end in se rather than ar/er/ir. When you use a reflexive verb you need to conjugate the 'se' part according to the person is referring to and move it at the start of the verb. In the case of llamarse the verb goes: me llamo, te llamas, se llama, nos llamamos, os llamais, se llaman. In English yo me llamo would be literally translated as I call myself.

Answered by Nicola B. Spanish tutor

15247 Views

See similar Spanish A Level tutors

Related Spanish A Level answers

All answers ▸

Please can you explain the difference between 'por' and 'para'?


¿Cuáles son los beneficios de conseguir experiencia laboral?


How do I form the pluperfect subjunctive?


En tu opinión, ¿por qué empiezan a fumar los jóvenes?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2024

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy