Answers>Maths>IB>Article

Prove that (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2 = 1

We start with the definitions of sine and cosine, which are, respectively: sinx = opposite/hypoteneuse and cosx = adjacent/hypoteneuse. We then square the analyzed expressions to get the following: 

(opposite ^2)/(hypoteneuse ^2) + (adjacent ^2)/(hypoteneuse ^2)

And since the denominators are the same, we can add the fractions to get: 

(opposite ^2) + (adjacent ^2) / (hypoteneuse ^2)

But recall the Pythagorean Theorem, according to which: (opposite ^2) + (adjacent ^2) = (hypoteneuse ^2). So we get:

[(hypoteneuse ^2)] / (hypoteneuse ^2) = 1. QED.

EA
Answered by Eno A. Maths tutor

13432 Views

See similar Maths IB tutors

Related Maths IB answers

All answers ▸

How would you find the Max and Min points on a graph?


Prove by mathematical induction that (2C2)+(3C2)+(4C2)+...+(n-1C2) = (nC3).


Given h(x) = 9^x + 9 and g(x) = 10*3^x, find {x | h(x) < g(x)}.


Find the derivative of the next function using the implicit method: x^2 sin(x+y)-5 y e^x​​​​​​​=0


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2025 by IXL Learning