To what extent was Neville Chamberlain's policy of appeasement responsible for the rise of Hitler and the eventual start of the Second World War?

Although Neville Chamberlain is often blamed for being solely responsible for allowing Hitler to mobilise a Germany that was spoiling for war, the extent to which this is the main reason is limited. A European anti-war rhetoric had befallen the belligerent nations of World War One after seeing the monumental destruction and death that it had caused, meaning it was not just Neville Chamberlain's fault for avoiding conflict until the last possible moment. The French also allowed Hitler to make great gains in remilitarising the Rhineland, despite it being flagrantly in opposition to the Locarno Treaty and the Treaty of Versailles. It is also worth mentioning that the Treaty of Versailles itself served to foster resentment among the German people due to the manner in which they were "embarrassed" by the international community, for a war they did not feel they were solely responsible for.

HF

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