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I don't understand why the function "f(x)=x^2 for all real values of x" has no inverse. Isn't sqrt(x) the inverse?
I like to think of a function a bit like a machine. It takes in a number, ...

x²-9x+20=0x²-5x-4x+20=0x(x-5)-4(x-5)=0(x-4)(x-5)=0x-4=0x=4x-5=0x=5

In order to tackle questions like this with two letters of unknown value, first what we try to do is eliminate one of the variables completely from an equation. If we call 6a + b = 16 eqn 1 and 5a - 2b = ...

(x+1)(x+2) = ( x^2 + 3x + 2) - multiplying out the first 2 terms(x^2 + 3x + 2)(x + 3) = x^3 + 3x^2 + 2x + 3x^2 + 9x + 6 - multiplying the product of the first two terms by the last termx^3 + 6x^2 + 11x + ...

Let u=exp(2x) and v'=cos(8x)From these you can obtain u' and vu=2exp(2x) and v=1/8 sin(8x)Formula: integral(uv'dx)=uv-integral(vu'dx)=1/8 exp(2x)sin(8x)-integral(1/4 sin(8x)exp(2x))=1/8exp(2x)sin(8x)+1/16...