Why does a 'many to one' function not have an inverse?

Because its hypothetical inverse would be 'one to many' which is not a function. This is because a single x-value would map to several y-values at the same time.

RK
Answered by Roy K. Maths tutor

13802 Views

See similar Maths A Level tutors

Related Maths A Level answers

All answers ▸

Differentiate: ln((e^x+1)/e^x-1))


f(x) = 2x3 – 5x2 + ax + 18 where a is a constant. Given that (x – 3) is a factor of f(x), (a) show that a = – 9 (2) (b) factorise f(x) completely. (4) Given that g(y) = 2(33y ) – 5(32y ) – 9(3y ) + 18 (c) find the values of y that satisfy g(y) = 0, givi


A particle P of mass 2 kg is held at rest in equilibrium on a rough plan. The plane is inclined to the horizontal at an angle of 20°. Find the coefficient of friction between P and the plane.


AS Maths ->Expresss x^2 + 3x + 2 in the form (x+p)^2 + q... where p and q are rational number


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2025

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy
Cookie Preferences