Why does a 'many to one' function not have an inverse?
Because its hypothetical inverse would be 'one to many' which is not a function. This is because a single x-value would map to several y-values at the same time.
RK
Related Maths A Level answers
All answers ▸A curve has the equation y=3x^2-2x+7, find the gradient of the line at the point (6,3)
a) Integrate ln(x) + 1/x - x to find the equation for Curve A b) find the x coordinate on Curve A when y = 0.
Given that y= 1/ (6x-3)^0.5 find the value of dy/dx at (2;1/3)
Why does inverse sin,cos or tan of numbers have multiple answers