Why does a 'many to one' function not have an inverse?
Because its hypothetical inverse would be 'one to many' which is not a function. This is because a single x-value would map to several y-values at the same time.
RK
Related Maths A Level answers
All answers ▸Derive the formula for differentiation from first principles
Show that the integral of tan(x) is ln|sec(x)| + C where C is a constant.
Time, T, is measured in tenths of a second with respect to distance x, is given by T(x)= 5(36+(x^2))^(1/2)+4(20-x). Find the value of x which minimises the time taken, hence calculate the minimum time.
4^x - 2^x+1 - 15 = 0