Answers>Maths>IB>Article

Prove that (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2 = 1

We start with the definitions of sine and cosine, which are, respectively: sinx = opposite/hypoteneuse and cosx = adjacent/hypoteneuse. We then square the analyzed expressions to get the following: 

(opposite ^2)/(hypoteneuse ^2) + (adjacent ^2)/(hypoteneuse ^2)

And since the denominators are the same, we can add the fractions to get: 

(opposite ^2) + (adjacent ^2) / (hypoteneuse ^2)

But recall the Pythagorean Theorem, according to which: (opposite ^2) + (adjacent ^2) = (hypoteneuse ^2). So we get:

[(hypoteneuse ^2)] / (hypoteneuse ^2) = 1. QED.

EA
Answered by Eno A. Maths tutor

14274 Views

See similar Maths IB tutors

Related Maths IB answers

All answers ▸

Find the constant term in the binomial expansion of (3x + 2/(x^2))^33


H(x)=(x^3)*(e^x) what is H'(x)


Given that y = -16x2​​​​​​​ + 160x - 256, find the value of x giving the maximum value of y, and hence give this maximum value of y.


Let f(x)= x^2+4, and g(x)= 3x; Find g(f(1))


We're here to help

contact us iconContact ustelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

MyTutor is part of the IXL family of brands:

© 2026 by IXL Learning