Why do past participles that take 'avoir' sometimes agree with the noun?

The answer is the preceding direct object.

Take the sentence the boy ate the apple.

Here we have a subject (the boy), followed by the verb (ate) and then the object (the apple).

So the sentence would be as follows.....

Le garçon a mangé la pomme.

HOWEVER

If the object comes before the verb, that is it precedes the subject which does the action to it, then the past participle has to agree in gender (masculine and feminine) and in number (singular or plural) with the object.

So it would become.........

La pomme a été mangée par le garçon.

Because pomme is feminine the past participle 'mangé' has an extra 'e' to make it agree.

The preceding direct object is useful to show off your knowledge of the french language, and also allows you to place the emphasis on the object in a sentence, by placing it at the start, rather than the subject.

 

Answered by Jessica H. French tutor

3523 Views

See similar French A Level tutors

Related French A Level answers

All answers ▸

Cherchez dans le texte un mot ou une expression qui a le même sens que les mots suivants (les mots sont dans l’ordre du texte).


How should I structure my french literature essays?


How can I tell when I need to use the subjunctive?


How do you know when to use the subjunctive?


We're here to help

contact us iconContact usWhatsapp logoMessage us on Whatsapptelephone icon+44 (0) 203 773 6020
Facebook logoInstagram logoLinkedIn logo

© MyTutorWeb Ltd 2013–2024

Terms & Conditions|Privacy Policy