How accurate is the assertion that Hitler achieved his dictatorship legally?

While Hitler's assention tothe position of 'Fuhrer' in 1934 went against the Weimar Constituion because it combined the two offices of Chancellor and President, historians point to the referendum which followed this action as an approval of Hitler's dictatorship by the German people. While this would validate Hitler's dictatorship, this analysis can be questioned due to the near constant intimidation which the German people faced by the SS and the Gestappo during times of election or referendum. As they had seen with the execution of rebellious SA members on the Night of the Long Knives in June 1934, the German people were fearful of opposing Nazi policies publically, due to the potential for them to be silenced by Nazi state oppression.

Despite this overtly oppressive behaviour, it can in fact be argued that this intimidation which led to the apparent approval of Hitler's dictatorship by the German people, was legal. Under the 'Enabling Act' of 1933, the state had the power to arrest any citizen which it was suspicious of. This law followed the Reichstag Fire of February 1933, which Hitler used as an oppertunity to pass the Act and opress his political enemies, thus enabling his dictatorship. Therefore in legal terms, state opression to create a dictatoship was not illegal. Yet whether this can be extended to murder to influence a referendum, is open to the historian's own interpretation. I.e, yours.