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Why is the inverse of a gradient -1/x?

Because the value, x and its inverse, -1/x should multiply together to give -1. This is proof that two lines are perpendicular (or having the same magnitude of gradient but opposite signs +/- ).

SR
Answered by Sherin R. Maths tutor
3793 Views

Work out area of shaded region in terms of pi. (https://prnt.sc/hqfbsl) [Question link]

Area of square : Base x Height.

Area of Circle: π x (Radius)2.

Looking at the diagram we are given the dimensions of the base or he...

MA
Answered by Mohammed A. Maths tutor
9693 Views

What is 'grouping' and how does it work?

Grouping is essentially factorisation, it's just the idea that ax + bx = (a+b)x, which we already know. But the difficulty is in recognising this relationship when x is more complicated, for example when ...

FH
Answered by Farah H. Maths tutor
3093 Views

Factorise 6x^2 - 13x + 6

(3x-6)(2x-1)

SG
Answered by Sophie G. Maths tutor
3146 Views

Make a the subject of 3(a+4) = ac+5f

Multiply out the brackets:

3a+12=ac+5f

3a-ac=5f-12

a(3-c)=5f-12

a=5f-12/3-c

AP
Answered by Abhiraj P. Maths tutor
3498 Views

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